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Q & A: Magnetic charge vis-a-vis electronic charge

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Most recent answer: 09/06/2009
I've been looking at the concept of magnetic charge. How it might explain electric charge appearing as full, as opposed to fractional, values...most of the time. The Helmholtz decomposition theorem harpoons spin 1/2 monopoles, and mathmatically, they're pseudoscalar so they should be spin 0. Being a charge it should have an anticharge, and there should be nothing to seperate them. So, I thought that like the pion, the magnetic charges would appear as a triplet set. Further, a vector field like the electron over the cross product of a spinless, chargeless pseudoscalar would create a pseudovector. i.e. the magnetic field. Aside from the exponential power necessary to create the seperate charges, how else could these pseudoscalars be proven or disproven?...Mind you, I've looked into a Stern-Gerlach like attempt by A.O. Barut that fell through. Any info would be greatly appreciated...Even a peep of recognition. Regards, Devon
- Devon (age 23)
I presume you have looked at  which has a discussion of the relationship between electronic charge and magnetic monopole charge.   They are intimately connected.   Paul Dirac, Nobel Prize winner, figured this out using sound quantum mechanical principles.  As far as experiment is concerned, the ultimate decision maker, there is no credible evidence for the existence of magnetic monopoles.  A lot of clever people have spent a lot of time searching with very clever experiments.  Alas, none have been found. There are many theories, yours included, speculating on the existence and properties of magnetic monopoles and their underlying properties and interactions.  For myself, I'll wait until some tangible evidence comes in.
But it doesn't hurt to speculate.


(published on 09/06/2009)

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